1 :

Hint : 🧠Think about which pregnancy change makes exchange between the mother and fetus more efficient near term.

Correct Answers:

  • Increased placental surface area


Rationale :

🀰Drug transfer from the mother to the fetus becomes greater during the last trimester because the placenta enlarges and becomes more efficient at exchange between maternal and fetal circulation.

πŸ«„An increased placental surface area allows more medications and substances to cross by diffusion, increasing fetal exposure to drugs during late pregnancy.

πŸ’ŠAs pregnancy progresses, the placenta develops thinner membranes and improved circulation, which enhances the movement of many drugs from the mother to the fetus.

πŸ“–The other options are incorrect because protein-bound drugs cross the placenta less easily, and changes in fetal surface area are not the primary factor influencing drug transfer.

πŸ“ŒCore message

An increased placental surface area in the third trimester allows more efficient transfer of drugs from the mother to the fetus.

2 :

Hint : 🧠Think about which laboratory value best reflects the kidneys’ actual filtering ability.

Correct Answers:

  • Glomerular filtration rate (GFR)


Rationale :

🩺Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is the best overall indicator of kidney function because it reflects how effectively the kidneys are filtering waste products from the blood.

πŸ§ͺIn patients with acute kidney injury, improvement in GFR indicates recovery of the kidneys’ filtering ability and restoration of renal perfusion.

πŸ’‰Although BUN, creatinine, and urine output are useful, they can be affected by factors such as hydration, diet, and medications, making them less accurate indicators of overall kidney recovery.

πŸ“šA rising or stabilizing GFR provides the clearest picture of functional kidney improvement and is widely used to stage kidney disease and monitor progression.

πŸ“ŒCore message

GFR is the most accurate indicator of overall kidney function and recovery in patients with AKI.

3 :

Hint : βœ…Focus on the principle that chemotherapy-induced nausea is best managed with preventive treatment.

Correct Answers:

  • Administering antinausea drugs 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy is started
  • Instructing the patient that the antinausea drugs may cause extreme drowsiness
  • Observing carefully for the adverse effects of restlessness and anxiety


Rationale :

πŸ’ŠAntiemetic medications are most effective when given 30 to 60 minutes before chemotherapy because they help prevent nausea before it begins.

😴Many antinausea drugs can cause significant drowsiness or sedation, so patients should be warned to avoid activities requiring alertness if affected.

πŸ‘€Certain antiemetics may produce adverse effects such as restlessness, anxiety, or extrapyramidal symptoms, requiring careful nursing observation.

πŸ“–Waiting until nausea begins decreases the effectiveness of therapy because prevention is more effective than treating established symptoms during chemotherapy.

πŸ“ŒCore message

Antiemetics should be given before chemotherapy and monitored carefully for sedation and neurologic adverse effects.

4 :

Hint : βœ…Think about the classic antibiotic commonly associated with treatment of resistant gram-positive infections.

Correct Answers:

  • Vancomycin


Rationale :

🦠Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) is resistant to many common antibiotics, making treatment selection very important.

πŸ’‰Vancomycin is a commonly used antibiotic for serious MRSA infections because it is effective against resistant gram-positive organisms.

πŸ₯Patients hospitalized for prolonged periods are at increased risk for acquiring multidrug-resistant infections, especially in wounds such as pressure ulcers.

πŸ“šThe other medications listed are not considered first-line therapy for serious MRSA skin and soft tissue infections.

πŸ“ŒCore message

Vancomycin is a key antibiotic used in the treatment of serious MRSA infections.

5 :

Hint : 🧠Consider which fingers are supplied by the median nerve in carpal tunnel syndrome.

Correct Answers:

  • Tingling in the thumb and index finger


Rationale :

βœ‹A positive Tinel’s sign occurs when tapping over the median nerve produces tingling or numbness in areas supplied by the nerve.

πŸ–οΈIn carpal tunnel syndrome, the median nerve is compressed at the wrist, commonly causing symptoms in the thumb, index finger, and middle finger.

⚑Patients often describe sensations such as tingling, burning, or numbness that worsen with repetitive hand movements.

πŸ“šWeakness in the little finger or elbow pain would suggest involvement of other nerves rather than the median nerve.

πŸ“ŒCore message

A positive Tinel’s sign in carpal tunnel syndrome commonly causes tingling in the thumb and index finger.

6 :

Hint : βœ…Think about the priority treatment that corrects the metabolic problem causing Kussmaul respirations.

Correct Answers:

  • Administer the prescribed fluid bolus and insulin.


Rationale :

🩸Rapid, deep respirations in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) are known as Kussmaul respirations and occur as the body attempts to correct metabolic acidosis.

πŸ’‰The priority treatment for DKA includes intravenous fluids and insulin, which correct dehydration, hyperglycemia, and acidosis.

🫁These respirations are compensatory and should not be slowed intentionally because they help remove excess carbon dioxide from the body.

πŸ“šAdministering fluids and insulin addresses the underlying cause of the acidosis rather than only treating the symptoms.

πŸ“ŒCore message

DKA is treated by correcting dehydration and hyperglycemia with fluids and insulin therapy.

7 :

Hint : 🧠Think about how protein binding affects the amount of active drug available in circulation.

Correct Answers:

  • The duration of action of the medication will be longer.


Rationale :

πŸ’ŠProtein-bound medications attach primarily to albumin in the bloodstream, leaving less free drug immediately available for action.

πŸ•’Because only the unbound portion is active, highly protein-bound drugs are released more slowly over time, resulting in a longer duration of action.

🩺This slower release can prolong therapeutic effects and sometimes increase the risk for drug interactions if displacement occurs.

πŸ“šDrugs that are not highly protein bound tend to act and be eliminated more quickly because more free drug circulates immediately.

πŸ“ŒCore message

Highly protein-bound drugs usually remain in circulation longer and have a prolonged duration of action.

8 :

Hint : 🧠Think about common nonprescription substances that can injure the liver.

Correct Answers:

  • "Do you use any over-the-counter drugs?"


Rationale :

πŸ’ŠMany over-the-counter medications, especially acetaminophen and herbal supplements, can cause drug-induced liver injury and hepatitis.

🟑When viral hepatitis testing is negative, the nurse should investigate possible exposure to substances that may damage the liver.

🩺Drug-induced hepatitis often presents with symptoms such as jaundice, nausea, and elevated liver enzymes similar to viral hepatitis.

πŸ“šIdentifying potentially hepatotoxic medications is important for preventing further liver damage and guiding treatment decisions.

πŸ“ŒCore message

Over-the-counter medications and supplements are important causes of drug-induced hepatitis.

9 :

Hint : 🧠Think about how fluid balance is safely managed in severe kidney disease.

Correct Answers:

  • "I will measure my output each day to help calculate the amount I can drink."


Rationale :

🩺Patients with stage 5 chronic kidney disease often require fluid restriction because the kidneys cannot adequately remove excess fluid.

πŸ’§Measuring daily urine output helps determine safe fluid intake and reduces the risk of fluid overload, edema, and hypertension.

🩸Erythropoietin is used to treat anemia associated with CKD, not to improve immunity or prevent infection.

πŸ“šPatients with advanced CKD usually need restrictions in potassium, phosphorus, and sometimes protein rather than increasing fruits, vegetables, or dairy intake excessively.

πŸ“ŒCore message

Monitoring urine output helps guide safe fluid intake in patients with advanced CKD.

10 :

Hint : 🧠Think about which diuretic helps conserve potassium instead of wasting it.

Correct Answers:

  • Administer the spironolactone.


Rationale :

🩸A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia, which can lead to dangerous cardiac dysrhythmias and muscle weakness.

πŸ’ŠSpironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that helps retain potassium while promoting fluid removal in patients with cirrhosis.

🚫Furosemide can further decrease potassium levels because it is a loop diuretic associated with potassium loss.

πŸ“šAdministering spironolactone while withholding furosemide helps correct hypokalemia and maintain safer electrolyte balance.

πŸ“ŒCore message

Spironolactone helps preserve potassium and is preferred when hypokalemia is present.

Total Questions: 10

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